Bayesian model averaging
Hi everyone, I read the two-part paper on bayesian inference in psychology (Wagenmakers et al., in press) and I found it very interesting. In the Part 2, the authors described BMA (p. 22-23) and they concluded that "averaged across all candidate models, the data strongly support inclusion of both main factors Disgust and Fright" based on the two BFinclusion (46.659 and 1.413e+8, respectively). I would like to be sure that my understanding of the BFInclusion is correct.
- Is it right to say that based on the BFInclusion = 46.659, the data are 46.659 more likely if we consider that disgust has an effect on the DV than if we consider that it has no effect at all?
-Is the formula to compute BFInclusion similar to those used to compute BF10?
-If I have to present results in a paper, do you recommend to present the BMA rather than the full model comparison? Or is it better to present both of the analyses?
Thank you very much in advance